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Why Did God Want To Kill Moses?

 

24 It happened on the way at a lodging place, that the LORD met him and wanted to kill him.
25 Then Zipporah took a flint, and cut off the foreskin of her son, and cast it at his feet; and she said,
"Surely you are a bridegroom of blood to me."
26 So he let him alone. Then she said, "You are a bridegroom of blood," because of the circumcision.
Shemot / Exodus 4:24-26

Shemot / Exodus 4:24-26 is probably one of the most difficult passages in the Bible; however, with a careful examination of the Scriptures it is possible to reach a degree of certainty in understanding why God wanted to kill Moses.

A little background to start with:
Moses, from being weened, was raised in Pharaoh's household as the son of Pharaoh's daughter (Shemot / Exodus 2:1-10) and when he was forty years old (Acts 7:23-29) he fled to Midian to escape the wrath of Pharaoh (Shemot / Exodus 2:15) where he settled, married and had two sons (Shemot / Exodus 18:2-4). He then encountered God at the burning bush and was commissioned to bring the Israelites out of Egypt and into the promised land (Shemot / Exodus 3:1-10). On the way to Egypt, God wanted to kill Moses and only "let him alone" after Moses' wife, Zipporah, had circumcised their son (Shemot / Exodus 4:24-26).

The most common answer given by the majority of commentators "Because Moses had failed to circumcise his son in accordance with the Abrahamic Covenant" immediately presents a problem as there is nothing in Scripture that condemns a father to be punished by death for not circumcising his son on the eighth day - the only punishment mentioned is that the uncircumcised soul is to be cut off from his people (Beresheet / Genesis 17:14); this would seem to apply to the father in the case of a newborn son - the father being held responsible as the child obviously cannot make decisions for himself - therefore Moses accordingly would be guilty.
However, the fact that Zipporah did the circumcision rather than Moses, creates another difficulty in that Moses would still stand guilty as he did not do the actual circumcision himself. Some commentators have Moses telling Zipporah to do the circumcision as he is sick in bed, struck with a plague by God and unable to move, thereby excluding him from doing it himself. However there is absolutely no Scriptural evidence for this whatsoever and so it must therefore be relegated to mere speculation; however, even if it were true, for reasons discussed below, it would still leave Moses guilty.

So why did Zipporah circumcise the boy rather than Moses? There are two possible explanations (based on how one understands the phrase 'the LORD met him' (v.24)): the first is that Moses was simply sleeping when the LORD came to meet with him and kill him and that Zipporah, sleeping lightly as mothers of small children do, responded to the suddenness of the situation knowing that precious time would be lost in stirring her sleeping husband. The second is that Moses was awake 'meeting with the LORD' (it was more than likely a monologue with the added threat of the angel of the LORD standing there with drawn sword) and therefore couldn't just turn away to do the circumcision himself.
Whichever it was Zipporah wasted no time, she quickly took a flint knife and cut off her son's foreskin touching Moses' feet with it thereby saving his life (the reason she touched his feet with the foreskin was a symbolic act of showing that she was a submissive wife (Rut / Ruth 3:4-11 and note) and that she only did the circumcision because of the necessity of the situation). It must be noted that this expression of submission shows that Zipporah acted on her own initiative and not at the command or bequest of Moses, thereby proving that Moses had no part whatsoever in the circumcision of his son (if Moses had indeed instructed Zipporah to perform the circumcision then she would have had no need to show her submission in such a way).

Some might also say that Moses, after his encounter at the burning bush, was held to a higher level of accountability and therefore God was justified in wanting to kill him for his failure in regards to the circumcising of his son. However, as already noted, there are no Scriptural grounds to take someone's life for their failing to circumcise their son. There is more: as we have already seen, Moses had two sons (Shemot / Exodus 18:2-4), both of whom were with him on the journey (Shemot / Exodus 4:20); however we are not told whether the other son was circumcised or not; if he was then it might seem plausible that God's not killing Moses was as a direct result of the other son being circumcised; if however he was not circumcised, and, as we shall see later, there is strong evidence to show that he wasn't, then Zipporah's act of circumcising her son to fulfill the Abrahamic Covenant proves to be false as both sons would naturally need to be circumcised in order to fulfill the covenant's requirements concerning circumcision: not only so but if Moses was guilty of breaking the Abrahamic Covenant by not circumcising his son then Zipporah's act would only redeem the boy and not Moses - he would still stand guilty (in order for Moses to have redeemed himself he would have needed to have instructed Zipporah to carry out the circumcision, but as already shown Moses played no active part at all).

Evidence For Moses Not Having Circumcised His Sons

Moses was forced to leave Egypt because Pharaoh wanted to kill him (Shemot / Exodus 2:15) on account of his killing of an Egyptian (Shemot / Exodus 2:12). We are told in Acts 7:23-25 that Moses supposed that his brothers understood that God was using him to deliver them (although his brothers didn't see it that way (Shemot / Exodus 2:13-14 also Acts 7:26-29) ) - he could have had some sort of revelation or insight into the plan of God or it might simply have been that since he was a learned person (Acts 7:22), then he probably knew the history of the promised redemption of the Israelites (Beresheet / Genesis 15:13-16) and saw himself, preserved as a child in such a special way (Shemot / Exodus 1:15-2:10), as the person that God would use to fulfill the promise. Whichever is closest to the actual truth we will never know except that Moses acted presumptuously in assuming that now was the time that God was going to deliver the Israelites. We know that it was presumption because Moses acted alone, highlighted by the description of how he struck down and killed the Egyptian (Shemot / Exodus 2:12) and as a result he had to flee in fear of his life - not something that would have happened had God initiated the redemption at that time.
He fled to Midian where he settled down and married a shepherd girl. There seems to be reason to believe that he had an identity crisis, not knowing if he was a Hebrew, an Egyptian (Zipporah told her father that it was an Egyptian that had rescued them (Shemot / Exodus 2:19)


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